Did America's Coalition of the Willing meet the UN's requirements for collective action?
Is the UN "law" on the unilateral use of force, articulated in Article 2(4), irrelevant? Does it serve any purpose(s)?
The UN banned the unilateral use of force in order to defer all war to the decision of a consensus of nations, as presently embodied in the United Nations.
As far back as the Hague Conferences of 1899, groups of nations have tried "to limit the national use of armaments" (Slomanson 485). Instead of banning war (which was politically impossible), they settled for a group of treaties and conventions in order to regulate the conduct of war.
"Members [of the UN] are expected to avoid the use of force because it threatens peace" (493). Rather than condoning the unilateral use of force, the UN would prefer a collective response to threats to the international system. "The UN further authorizes regional arrangements" (Ibid.), such as NATO.
Collective rather than unilateral response has not been made irrelevant by the invasion of Iraq. First of all, the invasion of Iraq was not a unilateral invasion by the United States: that coalition comprised 30 nations, including Spain, Italy, Japan, Uzbekistan, Georgia, and the Philippines. (Schifferes) It was only unilateral in that the "Coalition of the Willing" was assembled by the US rather than by a UN body, such as the Security Council.
The UN "law" precluding unilateral action is still valid because the UN authorizes regional arrangements or arrangements through mutual protection. The invasion of Iraq may have undermined UN authority through the US's end-run, but it did not obviate the goal of collective response to international threats.
Sources:
Schifferes, Steve. "US names 'coalition of the willing'." BBC News, 18 March 2003. Internet: Link, accessed 18 Jul 2006.
Slomanson, William R. Fundamental Perspectives on International Law, 4th Edition. Belmont, CA: Wadsworth/Thomson Learning. 2003.